Date | May 2017 | Marks available | 1 | Reference code | 17M.1.hl.TZ0.5 |
Level | HL only | Paper | 1 | Time zone | TZ0 |
Command term | State | Question number | 5 | Adapted from | N/A |
Question
Given that the series \(\sum\limits_{n = 1}^\infty {{u_n}} \) is convergent, where \({u_n} > 0\), show that the series \(\sum\limits_{n = 1}^\infty {u_n^2} \) is also convergent.
State the converse proposition.
By giving a suitable example, show that it is false.
Markscheme
since \(\sum {{u_n}} \) is convergent, it follows that \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } {u_n} = 0\) R1
therefore, there exists \(N\) such that for \(n \geqslant N,{\text{ }}{u_n} < 1\) R1
Note: Accept as \(n\) gets larger, eventually \({u_n} < 1\).
therefore (for \(n \geqslant N\)), \(u_n^2 < {u_n}\) R1
by the comparison test, \(\sum {u_n^2} \) is convergent R1
[4 marks]
the converse proposition is that if \(\sum {u_n^2} \) is convergent, then \(\sum {{u_n}} \) is also convergent A1
[1 mark]
a suitable counter-example is
\({u_n} = \frac{1}{n}{\text{ }}\left( {{\text{for which }}\sum {u_n^2} {\text{ is convergent but }}\sum {{u_n}} {\text{ is not convergent}}} \right)\) A1
[1 mark]