Date | May 2015 | Marks available | 4 | Reference code | 15M.3sp.hl.TZ0.5 |
Level | HL only | Paper | Paper 3 Statistics and probability | Time zone | TZ0 |
Command term | Determine | Question number | 5 | Adapted from | N/A |
Question
Determine the probability generating function for X∼B(1, p).
Explain why the probability generating function for B(n, p) is a polynomial of degree n.
Two independent random variables X1 and X2 are such that X1∼B(1, p1) and X2∼B(1, p2). Prove that if X1+X2 has a binomial distribution then p1=p2.
Markscheme
P(X=0)=1−p(=q); P(X=1)=p (M1)(A1)
Gx(t)=∑rP(X=r)tr(or writing out term by term) M1
=q+pt A1
[4 marks]
METHOD 1
PGF for B(n, p) is (q+pt)n R1
which is a polynomial of degree n R1
METHOD 2
in n independent trials, it is not possible to obtain more than n successes (or equivalent, eg, P(X>n)=0) R1
so ar=0 for r>n R1
[2 marks]
let Y=X1+X2
GY(t)=(q1+p1t)(q2+p2t) A1
GY(t) has degree two, so if Y is binomial then
Y∼B(2, p) for some p R1
(q+pt)2=(q1+p1t)(q2+p2t) A1
Note: The LHS could be seen as q2+2pqt+p2t2.
METHOD 1
by considering the roots of both sides, q1p1=q2p2 M1
1−p1p1=1−p2p2 A1
so p1=p2 AG
METHOD 2
equating coefficients,
p1p2=p2, q1q2=q2 or (1−p1)(1−p2)=(1−p)2 M1
expanding,
p1+p2=2p so p1, p2 are the roots of x2−2px+p2=0 A1
so p1=p2 AG
[5 marks]
Total [11 marks]
Examiners report
Solutions to (a) were often disappointing with some candidates simply writing down the answer. A common error was to forget the possibility of X being zero so that G(t)=pt was often seen.
Explanations in (b) were often poor, again indicating a lack of ability to give a verbal explanation.
Very few complete solutions to (c) were seen with few candidates even reaching the result that (q1+p1t)(q2+p2t) must equal (q+pt)2 for some p.